ACC 562 Final Exam – Strayer New

ACC 562 Final Exam – Strayer New

ACC 562 Week 11 Final Exam Solved

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1.Developing an understanding of the client's business and industry is essential to proficiency as discussed in the general standards of GAAS. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


2. Ratio analysis only involves a year-to-year comparison of account balances. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


3. Control is considered to be part of corporate governance. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


4. When control risk is assessed at a maximum level, the auditor assumes that the internal controls are reliable in preventing or detecting material misstatements. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


5. Accounting subsystems are accounting cycles composed of one or more accounting applications. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


6. Presentation and disclosure assertions imply that all transactions and balances are properly presented, disclosures represent what actually happened, and the footnote disclosures are appropriate and adequate. (Points: 4)
        True
        False




7. Vouching recorded transactions involves taking a sample from the journal and tracing them back to the source documents to ensure they occurred. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


8. Audit documentation serves as support for the financial statements. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


9. In analysis of the results of audit sampling, an auditor may determine that the sample size must be increased. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


10. The revenue cycle considered by auditors includes the sales process but not collections. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


11. Inventory is complex and typically considered a high-risk area in audits of service firms. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


12. An auditor can utilize a cross-sectional analysis for a client operating in multiple locations to identify areas of further inventory testing. (Points: 4)
        True
        False




13. Legal expenses are reviewed by auditors for possible litigation and related FAS 5 treatment. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


14. An imprest payroll account will never reach a zero balance. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


15. A turnaround document is an effective completeness control because they list essential information for further processing of the collection on account. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


16. Auditors will perform an analysis of leases using SFAS 13 criteria and other EITF statements to substantiate the accounting treatment. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


17. Contingencies are considered by the auditor in relation to the SFAS No. 5 criteria to determine whether material contingencies exist with the client and, if so, that they are properly accrued or disclosed. (Points: 4)
        True
        False






18. An example of a Type II Subsequent Event includes the settlement two months after year-end of a liability for an amount well in excess of the amount that was accrued at year-end. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


19. A report on agreed-upon procedures issued by accountants provides the lowest form of attestation assurance. (Points: 4)
        True
        False


20. The need for assurance services arises for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: (Points: 4)
        potential bias in providing information.
        closeness between a user and the organization.
        complexity of the processing systems.
        remoteness between a user and the organization.

21. Which one of the following is not part of the attest process? (Points: 4)
        evaluating evidence against objective criteria
        gathering evidence about assertions
        proving the accuracy of the books and records
        communicating the conclusions reached








22. Users can reasonably expect audited financial statements to be (Points: 4)
        complete and contain all important financial disclosures, be free from material misstatements and be presented fairly.
        complete and contain all-important financial disclosures, be free from material misstatements and be presented fairly according to GAAP.
        complete, be accurate and be presented fairly according to GAAP.
        complete and contain all-important financial disclosures, be free from all misstatements and be presented fairly according to the substance of GAAP.


23. Which one of the following is not a provider of assurance services? (Points: 4)
        CPAs
        internal auditors
        governmental auditors
        AICPA


24. The primary governing board that performs quality reviews on registered CPA firms that audit public companies is the (Points: 4)
        PCAOB
        GAO
        AICPA
        FASB


25. Management of an organization has the responsibility for all of the following except: (Points: 4)
        accounting principles used in financial reporting
        engagement of a qualified auditor
        internal control over financial reporting
        financial statements and disclosures


26. The financial statement auditor must understand the client's internal control as a component of the fieldwork standards. The one of the reason for this understanding is so that the auditor may (Points: 4)
        provide individual comments on internal control non-compliance.
        become comfortable that the client will pay its audit bills.
        assess materiality.
        assess the risk of possible misstatements in the financial statements.


27. For an auditor to be independent, he or she must be independent in (Points: 4)
        fact.
        appearance.
        fact and appearance.
        either fact or appearance.


28. An auditor is concerned with materiality for which of the following reasons? (Points: 4)
        to assess internal control
        to comply with the quality assurance standards of GAAS
        to determine the effects of misstatements on the users of financial information
        to cut down on audit procedures and testing


29. A proper system of corporate governance is one that demands (Points: 4)
        decision making by auditors in place of management.
        internal audit representation on the board of directors.
        audit planning to obtain competent and sufficient audit evidence.
        accountability back through the system to the shareholders.








30. In determining the types of activities, engagements and interactions an auditor should have with a client, the CPA and the audit firm must (select the best answer) (Points: 4)
        follow the rules exactly as they are written.
        assess all of their relationships with every client to ensure that independence is intact.
        focus on client satisfaction above all other considerations
        realize that ethics are only guidelines and a matter of personal judgment.


31. The AICPA Principles of Professional Conduct include (Points: 4)
        due professional care and supervision.
        scope and nature of services and adequate training.
        integrity and independence
        public interest, integrity and objectivity.


32. A public client is required to report material changes in internal control (Points: 4)
        monthly.
        quarterly.
        annually.
        never.


33. Programs written to accomplish specific processing tasks, such as computing payroll, are (Points: 4)
        application programs.
        operating system programs.
        Java scripts.
        access control programs.




34. The combination of which functions in an information technology environment are not necessarily a control weakness? (Points: 4)
        user and programming functions
        database administrator and data input functions
        programmers and authorization of changes
        users and certain data access


35. Backup controls, used to prevent data and software loss would include procedures to: (Points: 4)
        load balance in the event of heavy traffic across the network.
        constantly monitor the network for intrusion and attack.
        provide an alternate form of electricity to the corporate facilities.
        fail-over to a mirrored storage device in the event of interruption or loss.


36. Which one of the following is an example of an edit test for limits? (Points: 4)
        Only numbers are allowed to be input into the social security number field and dashes are pre-formatted.
        Each sales order is given an identifier that is also tagged to the receipt of goods record, the customer invoice record and the cash receipts record
        The purchasing department may order materials up to $5,000 in total before a second electronic authorization is required.
        Supplies may not be purchased from any vendor not authorized and existing in the vendor table.


37. The control totals used to ensure the completeness of processing in a batch processing environment include (Points: 4)
        record count.
        control totals.
        hash totals.
        all of the above.


38. The type of test used to check that no hourly employee is paid more than $400.00 in one week is: (Points: 4)
        an edit test.
        a batch control test.
        an output control test.
        none of the above.


39. Tagging and tracing might best be used to test which of the following? (Points: 4)
        The number of confirmations returned compared to the number of confirmations sent out.
        The corporate credit card is only being used for business transactions.
        All customer orders shipped were also invoiced and that cash was received.
        Quantities of product F411029 have been accurately counted in the warehouse.